The real problem with both Marxism and libertarianism is that they are ahistorical. Humans are not atomized individuals that emerge as blank slates on the historical scene, free to impose upon the world whatever scheme or ideology they dream up. Rather, humans are born into families and communities and are thereby bearers of a tradition, even in modernity. The tradition or legacy one is born into cannot but inform the worldview of those that mature and progress in that society, and my friends themselves fail to see themselves as products of modern, Enlightenment Americanism. America is an attempt at an Enlightenment republic based on the philosophy of empiricists like John Locke and Thomas Jefferson, including the new ideas of their time – man as tabula rasa, all men as supposedly equal, atomized individuals with “rights” based in faulty philosophical concepts like “natural law.”
America is the first real attempt at a secular, atomistic republic. It is, as I have shown elsewhere, “right wing” revolutionary Illuminism (Girondin) in contrast to the Jacobins. It is the first attempt at a propositionally based nation – something that achieved its apex in Lincoln, who absurdly divided “nation” from a certain people group, imagining it to be a purely propositional creation. The social contract error of Locke is therefore the foundation of all these absurd positions, whether Locke, Jefferson or the Marxists. Government is viewed as a human social construct that either has no authority over men, or as a totalitarian entity that controls every area of life. In similar fashion, the economics of a people cannot be divorced from the worldview or culture of a people. Just as libertarians and Enlightenment descendants think that government (the social contract) and social order (hierarchy or class) are purely rational human constructs, so also do they assume that economics is some idea that can be imposed on external reality. They fail to see economics is also a manifestation of cultures with histories and a tradition intimately tied to a people and/or race.
The unfortunate truth that almost no one will be able to swallow in Amerika is that this is all b.s. All of this Enlightenment garbage listed above is not true. It’s not by accident that Enlightenment liberalism and its presuppositions have led to feminism, gay rights, gender “equality,” gender as a social construct, Marxism, etc. – because they’re all based on the Marxist and leftist error that human nature, or the natures of things, can be altered by external stimuli (because they don’t exist). Since things don’t have any objective nature in these views, it follows that they are completely malleable and programmable by re-education or external stimuli. Certainly external stimuli can affect our DNA or change our thoughts on a matter, but neither of these has anything to do with whether we have souls. Only if one viewed man as something purely mental with a body would these even make sense. No, man is much more than merely a mind with a body – he has a deeper core to his being which is at root mysterious. It is his soul, and could in a sense be called his “essence,” and it marks him out as distinct from other animals or inanimate things. Libertarians may not share the plan for enforced statist education, but they share the same assumptions of man as an autonomous blank slate. Likewise, in economics, goods, trade, mediums of currency, and assets like gold are always going to exist. Humans have always valued gold, and always will, regardless of whether one views gold as possessing an intrinsic value or not.
At this point, my friends accused my reasoning of being based on historical appeal and the fallacy of authority. But are all appeals to history and authority fallacies? One of my friends has accused me of this numerous times in discussions on these issues. Setting aside for a moment the question of whether a universe where both logical laws and anarchism are somehow compatible, let us even see if such claims are always fallacies in logic proper. The fallacy of authority is as follows:
Most of what authority A has to say on subject matter S is correct.
A says P about subject matter S.
Therefore, P is correct.
In logic, that is a fallacy, because it may or may not be true. It also doesn’t mean that the claim is necessarily false. It just means that it may or may not be true. But is this fallacy something that can be totalized? In other words, can this be applied to all fields and all human interaction? I argue no, and it will become quite evident why, even in simple things. It’s also important to understand the place of logic. Logic is not an all-encompassing entity that can be used to explain all aspects of reality, any more than mathematics is an all-encompassing explanation for all reality. Mathematics and logic are intimately related, but they are inadequate as being fully descriptive for things like history/the past, the self, meaning, love, evil, morals or anything outside our visible experience, like memories.
All of these things are examples of phenomena that are very real, but don’t exactly fit into the categories of what is numeric and what is a logical necessity. Math and logic deal with things like quantitative extension or necessary relations among concepts, but don’t explain much in regard to things like I listed. But we wouldn’t say that those things above are therefore “irrational,” or non-existent because they aren’t explained well by math and logic. For example, some have tried to tie morals to purely rational syllogisms and claims, with the intent of working out a rationalist utilitarian ethics. The history of utilitarian ethics, however, has proven entirely bankrupt in this regard, precisely because it shares the same Enlightenment/atheistic presuppositions as the rest of the Enlightenment errors, like the social contract. If people of their opinion were more consistent, they would have to go the route of Hume and adopt total skepticism, since there is no “measurement” of the past.
To make this more clear, however, we need consider only linguistic philosophy. Any claim of knowledge at all, by anyone, involves concepts and ideas that were transmitted from someone else in the past, that now in turn informs our knowledge in the present. Anything you know, you learned through the language you were taught as a child, and the teachers who instructed you. They, in turn, learned language and mathematics from others before them. So even complex, ideal things like math and logic are not things that are transmitted to humans apart from a tradition. When you learned 2 + 2 = 4, you learned a specific tradition of mathematics that has been historically informed by Greek and Indian culture. Some children do not learn these things and do not know how to read, write and do math, but you were taught it via the culture and tradition you were born into, which inherited these great ideas from the West that other cultures have not had, and still do not have. Does that mean it was inextricably bound to those cultures? Obviously not, but nevertheless, it came through that route. And it is therefore evident that all knowledge of any kind, particularly what are ultimately esoteric things like math and logic, are a part of a historic tradition – not something you as a lone individual grabbed out of the aether through your own rationalism. Furthermore, this doesn’t entail cultural relativism either, since cultures can be more or less rational.
Even if one rejected this clear truth about tradition and knowledge, it would still be the case that anything you as an individual knows is based largely on the authority and testimony of others. If you’ve read any scientific journal or paper, or watched a documentary, and haven’t yourself done all those experiments and tests and investigations, you are basing your knowledge on authority or testimony. Indeed anything about the past not in one’s immediate experience would also have to be based on the testimony of others. So are all appeals to the past and the testimony of others fallacies? Clearly not, or else no one could make a statement about anything in the past, but to go that route is absurd. Thus is someone wanted to make the argument as I did that humans have always valued gold, for 6,000 years, and then extrapolate from that they will continue to do so, that is no more a fallacy than any claim based on induction. Indeed – go read your David Hume again, because anytime you claim that induction itself is invalid because it’s based on the past, you destroy all knowledge period. Remember that Hume is taking rationalist Enlightenment empiricism to its logical conclusion: if any appeal to the past or past experience is a fallacy, then there is no basis for induction. But induction is crucial to all science and logic.
My position is not the absurd one. I believe knowledge is something born in a tradition and that some egalitarian leap away from all things past, like Marx and Mao said, is nothing but destructive to knowledge. Indeed, one of my friends claims to love the trivium and quadrivium. But those are not subjects of study that fell from the realm of forms into your mind, but are part of a medieval western tradition that was informed and born by Plato, Aristotle, the Bible and Tradition. Furthermore, there are sciences higher than the quadrivium, one of which is metaphysics, which further backs up everything I say. So man is not a blank slate and he is not an atomized individual who can adopt and invent traditions and economies and natures at will, but is bound by the objective tradition(s) of which is a part and of which he is able to come to know. Therefore gold is something man will always value, because it is the common heritage of all his ancestors that he valued gold in economic interactions and there is no good reason to think he will cease. That’s not a fallacy anymore than saying “humans are self-interested” is a fallacy, because it has always been the case, and it is entirely rational to believe they will continue to do so. On the contrary, the burden is on the shoulders of the Marxists to show why anyone should believe men will operate differently.